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	Comments on: Why the difference between the words &#8220;murder&#8221; in the Torah and &#8220;kill&#8221; in the Bible in the sixth commandment?	</title>
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	<description>Moral answers to everyday concerns, curiosities, and uncertainties.  Gramps considers all questions on all topics from all sources.</description>
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		By: bthis		</title>
		<link>https://askgramps.org/between-words-murder-torah-kill-bible/#comment-34222</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[bthis]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Wed, 01 Jul 2015 13:16:00 +0000</pubDate>
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					<description><![CDATA[Gramps and Moshe, my understanding is that in the English spoken in King James&#039; time, the words kill and murder had essentially the same meaning, with is illiegal or immoral killing of a human being, not the more generalized definition of &quot;kill&#039; today as being ending any life of a living being, human or other. Is that the case? 
Thank you, 
  --Barry in Dallas]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Gramps and Moshe, my understanding is that in the English spoken in King James&#8217; time, the words kill and murder had essentially the same meaning, with is illiegal or immoral killing of a human being, not the more generalized definition of &#8220;kill&#8217; today as being ending any life of a living being, human or other. Is that the case?<br />
Thank you,<br />
  &#8211;Barry in Dallas</p>
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