<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><rss version="2.0"
	xmlns:content="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/modules/content/"
	xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/"
	xmlns:atom="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom"
	xmlns:sy="http://purl.org/rss/1.0/modules/syndication/"
	
	>
<channel>
	<title>
	Comments on: Hebrew and Greek Scholars	</title>
	<atom:link href="https://askgramps.org/hebrew-and-greek-scholars/feed/" rel="self" type="application/rss+xml" />
	<link>https://askgramps.org/hebrew-and-greek-scholars/</link>
	<description>Moral answers to everyday concerns, curiosities, and uncertainties.  Gramps considers all questions on all topics from all sources.</description>
	<lastBuildDate>Wed, 29 Sep 2021 03:29:44 +0000</lastBuildDate>
	<sy:updatePeriod>
	hourly	</sy:updatePeriod>
	<sy:updateFrequency>
	1	</sy:updateFrequency>
	
	<item>
		<title>
		By: Cedric Fisher		</title>
		<link>https://askgramps.org/hebrew-and-greek-scholars/#comment-34490</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[Cedric Fisher]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Mon, 09 Nov 2015 13:36:00 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://en.elds.org/askgramps-org/?p=12043#comment-34490</guid>

					<description><![CDATA[In Luke 21:34, the Greek text for “overcharged” is βαρητωσιν, which is barēthōsin.  However, Strong’s Concordance lists the Greek word as βαρύνω (baryon).  Popular commentaries use the word βαρεω (bareō), βάρος (baros), baruno, etcetera.   My question is, why do they use words other than barēthōsin?]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>In Luke 21:34, the Greek text for “overcharged” is βαρητωσιν, which is barēthōsin.  However, Strong’s Concordance lists the Greek word as βαρύνω (baryon).  Popular commentaries use the word βαρεω (bareō), βάρος (baros), baruno, etcetera.   My question is, why do they use words other than barēthōsin?</p>
]]></content:encoded>
		
			</item>
	</channel>
</rss>
