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Dear Gramps,

We are told that Christ’s redeeming atonement was infinite, and specifically, that He descended “below all things”. If this is true, then why isn’t murder covered by His atonement? How can it be called an infinite and universal atonement when murder is not included? Your thoughts on this would be appreciated.




Lets use the example of the Lamanite conversion to address this point. The Book of Mormon clearly records that the Lamanite converts were forgiven of ‘Their many murders.’ So clearly the atonement did and can include murder. What it can’t do is rob the justice of God.

We also see this in the Book of Mormon account. These Lamanites converts buried their weapons of war and allowed themselves to be killed, because they knew that if after having receive such a forgiveness and the light and understanding that they gained. That if they were then to then return to their old ways and deny the light and knowledge they have gained they would have rejected the atonement that Christ offers to all.

Effectively choosing to reject the atonement is the only thing the atonement can’t cover. To reject it we must first really and truly understand it and many of us only have the barest of glimmer. But in the day that we understand enough, if we then choose to reject it then God will respect our choice in the matter.


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